Race Mixing is a Sin - A Thread 🧵

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Race Mixing is a Sin -
A Thread 🧵

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TL;DR: 
Its a form of Adultery. A sin against one of the 10 commandments of God (#6/7).
Think of this: "Pitbulls are the result of adulteration between Bulldogs and Terriers".
Definition wise, this sentence works. It is simply that the root word "adulter" has changed over time.

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DISCLAIMER: I am in no way saying that you must believe this to be Christian, but if you dismiss this entire thread just because "racism bad", then you are truly too deep and far gone within the contemporary cultural morality, and I would seriously question your salvation.

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1. Historically Speaking, miscegenation was not fondly looked at; but it was rare enough that its likely not spoken of often in writings. If it did occur, the progeny were considered illigitimate; bastards, or mongrels. Theres a notion of corruption occuring in the family line.

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2. The definition of Bastard has obviously changed, or rather broadened. Earlier use cases are now unused, and you will notice this is going to be a running theme in this thread. We have to understand how important context is in ancient writing, as definitions constantly evolve.

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3. Morally today: why is it wrong? you may ask. It alienates the people, disintegrates culture, and causes the races culture to change (usually for worse). Kids born of such unions don't fair better; a selfish act that goes against the foundations laid by your ancestors and God.

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4. There is always good reason for God to command something from us, and even if you may not fully agree with me, this conclusion does not come from a pernicious point of view. This is a complex subject, and I in no way take it lightly.

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5. Back to the definition of "Bastard": Only used twice in the Hebrew (commonly translated) 1 of its uses can't be argued as anything but "Mongrel/Mixed Race" in meaning (Zech 9:6) But its other use is debated on mainly due to conflict with contemporary virtues. (Deut 23:2)

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6. The issue isn't even with the translation, its with the definiton of illegitimite. The context for what is considered illigitimitate has changed, so even tho Deut 23:2 could easily refer to both out of wedlock AND mixed race offspring, modernity decides only the former is true

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7. Thats the OT, we're in the NT now! Ne..neither jew nor greek! A clear misunderstanding of the NT when thinking this way. To think Christ denies the law, is in err. No he restablishes it thru correct spiritual interpretation, and I will give more examples as the thread goes on.

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8. In Matt 12:39 Jesus calls the Pharisiac Jews an "adultetous generation" , or γενεά μοιχαλίς. Which a better modern translation would be "Corrupt/Mingled Race". Both the physical and spiritual corruption of these pharisees is true, but i will go ahead and explain why that is:

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9. First - why generation regards to race. Again, words have evolved from their previous usage. Generation today refers to any type of people in a specific age range, sharing only cultural aspects, irrelevant to their ancestry. This isnt the case in the past, as per the image def

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10. The translation of generation in the KJV/Similar comes from the greek genea(γενεά), in both OT and NT this often times refers to race, lineage, progeny or descent. Other times it refers to a definition closer to the modern version of generation.

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11. <genea(γενεά) in other Greek works image>
Tho genea, when refering to "many generations", is closer to our modern def, its still not the same. As genea refers to a particular ancestry of people in time; rather then possibly refering to total strangers born in the same decade

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12. Lev 25:30 is a great example of this: "throughout his generations" could only refer to his particular lineage, as otherwise the context of the sentence wouldnt make sense. The rest of this image refers to further examples of the usage of genea(γενεά) in the Bible

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13. In Matt 24:34, Jesus speaks about the end times refering to the Israelites with "this generation won't pass till all these things take place". This verse is confusing for many because of the misunderstanding of what generation/genea means. Race/Lineage removes this confusion

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14. That "generation" has already passed, yet the end times aren't here. But when we understand what genea(γενεά) truly means then it all falls together. Jesus is speaking of their race, line of descent or progeny, and that it won't "pass" until all the prophecy is fullfilled.

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15. So in Matt 12:39, Jesus is possibly refering to the adulterous "race" or lineage that made up the Pharisees. But how can they be corrupt or mongrels from a physical sense? Doesn't adultery refer to marriage infidelity?
Going with the theme of the thread: things have changed.

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16. Yes, adultery can refer to marriage infidelity, but in Biblical terms its actually more nuanced then that. It isn't simply cheating, but rather the corruption of a covenenant, contract or promise. Even modern terms like "social contracts" can be adultered or corrupted

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17. Think of the many instances where God proclaims that Israel has betrayed him and committed adultery, or in Matt 5:28 where Jesus says that even looking at a woman with lust was adultery in your heart. What we see today with words like adultery is called a semantic narrowing.

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18. Words like heretic and fornication have had similar treatment. 
Heretic used to mean a school of thought or sect, now only refering to rejection of religious truth. 
Fornication refered to any sexual immorality, now only really refering to intercourse outside of marriage.

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19. What Jesus said about lusting after a woman; is the most telling that this word reaches a broader meaning. In the same sermon he speaks of the spiritual law, he had truly explained the real spiritual law against adultery: To corrupt, debase, defile, to mingle; even your mind

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20. So is there any example of race mixing occuring in the Bible? What was the result?
There is in fact 2 which Ill explain. The 1st being from the last 2 chapters of Ezra: which is the story of how the Israelites, coming back to their land had "mingled" their seed with "aliens"

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21. This mingling; in the hebrew; may seem religious (Deut 7) regarding only pagans. But the LXX reveals a much deeper context, which was already implied (Ezra 9:2) This mingling was racial, as the people described by Ezra were allogenis(ἀλλογενής) literally: another race.

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22. Some may still try to claim that the law they broke here was from Deut 7, but this just doesn't add up. Why would more nations be included in this list, even nations they were allowed to intermarry with? (Deut 23:7-8) this was also almost 1000 years after the law was given.

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23. This isnt to say the law didn't matter, but rather that the demographics of the land had substantially changed. The key word here is "allogenis(ἀλλογενής) women of the land" which indicates to us it might not be the nations as a whole, but the women of that land specifically

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24. If it were not the entire nations that were the problem, but instead specific allogenis women within them, then it would make sense why Deut 7 would not line up, because their sin was based on breaking an entirely different law: The closest instead being that of adultery.

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25. If you're still doubtfull that this example is about race, then why did the Israelites see it fit to "put away" the children as well as the women? If it were only about religion, couldnt they teach and raise them properly? If not, then something more underlining was the issue

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26. The 2nd example is from way back in the book of Genesis, a story many know: the flood narrative. What many DON'T know; is in the greek; Gen 6:9 basically proclaims the genesis/origins of Noah, and that he was a just/righteous man in his genea(γενεά). Meaning: his race/lineage

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27. In context to the flood, it makes sense. The sons of God mixed with the daughters of men, and this union brought forth evil. It was so bad that God had to flood the land as this progeny had muliplied immensley. All but Noah, who was found blameless in his genea(γενεά)

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28. Its understandable to question whether to consider this "race mixing". What i really want to point out though is that what this was; was corruption, meaning: adultery. However you may interpret the flood story, whatever mixing occured was a sin, and it was evil.

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29. So when Jesus tells us the Pharisees were an "adulterous generation", and previous linguists even noted that this could refer to a spurious/degenerated/corrupt race, we now understand the entire context. They certainly were spiritually; why couldnt they be physically?

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30. B..but these are all from the OT!
To drive the point home I'll provide other examples of purity and unmixing being mentioned in the NT. But ill keep this part short, as I dont have as much research laid out. Its still very relevant to the topic tho.

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31. You forgot 1 example of race mixing, cause it was actually permitted by God huh, what now chud?
The earliest mention of Moses wife denies any such assertion. His only wife was Zipporah, and she was closely related to his lineage, despite being "Aethiopian" as the pic explains

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32. Though related to Race-mixing, this study takes a bit of a detour into etymological study between "Adam" and "Enosh".
Tldr: Not everyone who is "human" is of Adam or in the Image of God, some are in fact a lower being that is categorically different from the sons of Adam.

Race Mixing is a Sin - A Thread 🧵

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