WHY do we divide by n-1 when computing the sample variance? I've...

Kareem Carr, Ph.D.@kareem_carr
6 views
Feb 12, 2025
~3 min read
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7
The way I like to think about it is we're subtracting -1/n of the observation when we subtract the sample mean. Since we do this n times for each observation, n times -1/n equals 1. We are effectively subtracting 1 observation. This is why we effectively have n-1 observations.
8
This way of thinking about it is not mathematically rigorous but we can make it more rigorous.
What if we try to decorrelate the sample mean and each observation?
What if we try to decorrelate the sample mean and each observation?
10
The decorrelation procedure makes intuitive sense.
The average of the n-1 remaining values is uncorrelated with the first observation, and since it's just a sample containing n-1 values, it's also a reasonable estimate of the average of the total population.
The average of the n-1 remaining values is uncorrelated with the first observation, and since it's just a sample containing n-1 values, it's also a reasonable estimate of the average of the total population.
14
This isn't the whole story. There is one more twist of mathematical luck that makes the algebra work out.
But this is the main idea.
I hope this makes the appearance of n-1 feel less mysterious.
But this is the main idea.
I hope this makes the appearance of n-1 feel less mysterious.










