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@cremieuxrecueil: Does the U.S. overpay for drug...

@cremieuxrecueil
33 views May 13, 2025
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Does the U.S. overpay for drugs?

Common knowledge says "Yes".

Real data says "No", because the U.S. gets favorable prices for generic drugs and it primarily consumes generic drugs. In fact, they're 91% of prescriptions!
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But then, we have a mystery:

If the prices America tends to pay are, in fact, reasonable, then why does it account for such a large share of all global spending on drugs?
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When we think of the U.S. overpaying, we're thinking about 9% of purchases and forgetting the 91% for which it has better prices

The reason the U.S. does so much health spend is not high prices, it's high consumption

America is rich, so it buys a lot of healthcare! For example:
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The U.S. also accounts for an outsized share of non-prescription purchases, for which the prices are also still fine.

If you want to get to the point where America matches poor countries, just stop right there, because they have lower prices, but also consumption, and quality.
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And, what value does the U.S. get for that high consumption?

Well generally better health outcomes for things the health system actually controls.

But American health lags due to diseases of affluence and violence.
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Go figure.

America eats itself to death and attempts to eat its way out of eating itself to death, too. That's being absurdly rich for you.

The question is, why bemoan this?
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This is not to say there's nothing the U.S. can do to lower drug prices and get down spending while maintaining its consumption volume.

There's a massive amount of deregulation that can be done to cut non-generic drug prices and much else, it's just harder than price controls.
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Thread on MFN policy in health:
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Elasticities of healthcare innovation to spending:
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Some people want to make the baffling decision to talk about total expenditures instead of the price level to answer the question of whether the price level drives total expenditures. That's just reasoning backwards.


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